The 2nd Amendment to the U.S. Constitution reads:
"A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
The last time the Supreme Court heard a 2nd Amendment case was U.S. v. Miller in 1939. Then, they ruled that "infringed" did not apply to bootleggers with sawed-off shotguns. Will they take a similar view of DC residents and handguns?
What do you think? Does the constitution guarantee individuals the right to carry guns? Handguns? Is it a collective right? Does it only apply to militias.
Share your thoughts!
Personally, I despise the 2nd Amendment. I don't like guns, and I don't think DC residents need handguns (or VA residents for that matter).
That said, I also think the 2nd Amendment is completely unambiguous. It says individuals can have guns, and that's that. To do something about it, we'd have to amend the constitution, and that's unlikely to happen any time soon (and doesn't have popular support).
I think the SCOTUS is likely to rule the ban unconstitutional, and rightly so, as much as it pains me to say it.
...The amendment is an ambiguous, mealy-mouthed compromise that conveniently leaves for another day (like 2008) a legal resolution of the debate between gun rights enthusiasts and gun control advocates - a fight that is older than the country itself. Ohio State University history professor Saul Cornell established as much in his fine recent book on the matter.
But the 2nd Amendment is not "completely unambiguous," and I'd be surprised -- quite independent of how the court rules on this particular case -- if the SCOTUS will find an absolute right for individuals to own guns.
First, it says nothing about "guns." It says "arms," so there is that problem. If it is a right to own a handgun, isn't it a right to own, say, a SAM?
But more specifically, certainly you don't think mentally ill people have a right to possess arms, do you? How about convicted felons?
Lowell, to your quote, I can find you any quote to support any side in this debate. But a good many constitutional scholars do tend to agree that while the wording may be vague, the intention was not. Arms, even then, meant weapons of any kind, and was commonly used to refer to guns. "The people" is used multiple times in the Constitution to refer to individual rights (contrary to the collective rights argument). The intro regarding the militia is a perfect example of "flowery language," also commonly used in the Constitution.
Sure there's reasonable limiting that does not "infringe." Sawed-off shotguns across state lines, assault weapons, SAM's. But handguns are not unreasonable to own (again, just being devil's advocate here - I don't personally believe that). And DC's ban is arguably infringing.
Your comment that there is a "reasonable limiting" that does not infringe is inconsistent with your assertion previously that the 2nd Amendment "unambiguously" afforded an individual right to bear arms. What is reasonable?
As for original intent, while I agree that the use of the word "people" can mean an individual right, it is certainly not dispositive. More to the point, however, use of this rule of construction would require consideration of, not dismissal of, the introductory clause, which clearly suggests the intent of the right was collective, i.e., that the Federal Government could not, by force of law, render owning weapons illegal as a means of preventing the formation of state militias that could counter the expected effort of the Federal government to exert tyrannical power.
I wouldn't predict what the Supremes will do. If, however, the four Justices of the Apocalypse sitting up these do find a fifth vote for a crackpot theory of an individualized right to own arms, the America will become a more dangerous place. Not because of law-abiding, responsible gun owners, collectors, hunters.
And then there's the matter of denying the right permanently to some classes of persons, like convicted felons. "Reasonable regulation", the usual phrase brought up in this context, never applies anything more than a temporary, situational restriction of other individual constitutional rights. We don't cut people's tongues out for shouting "fire" in a crowded theater. We don't force convicted felons to join the Episcopal Church. In fact, if they are accused of new crimes, they have the same right to a fair trial as a person with no priors. So what "reasonable" basis can there be to deny people firearms for a lifetime, if that is indeed an individual constitutional right?
I expect the Court will neither uphold or strike down the DC law. They will make a narrow point (for example, the DC court found that the law amounts to a complete ban on functional firearms and that conclusion is incorrect) and send it back to the DC Circuit.
This gives the Court more time to let lower courts and briefs cover the questions.
The next most likely outcome, I think, is that the Court will strike it down as overbroad without ruling whether a STATE could enact the same law. The "State" is mentioned in the amendment, after all. The decision would also leave unclear how broad the restrictions could be in DC.
Whatever the ruling, pay close attention to the explanation of why they ruled that way. It'll be important.
To me, it's clear the Second Amendment is about state regulation and maintanence of their militias. If the amendment simply said "right to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed" then that wouldn't be the case, but the militia portion isn't there just for decoration, and all portions of the Constitution and Bill of Rights (especially the original 1789-1791 parts) do serve a purpose for a nation of social-compact republicanism. That said, if a state wanted to ban all private ownership of firearms, the state could under the Second Amendment because the amendment is to protect states from unwarranted and wrongful FEDERAL intervention in the operation of their militias. So if the Court thinks of DC as a state, then obviously the District can do what it wants with handguns since the amendment gives states the right to do what they want with arms and militia service.
Since the Supreme Court ruled in 1939 that the amendment refers only to militia service, federal appeals courts are 42-1 in upholding gun control laws against Second Amendment complaints. State supreme courts have ruled as far back as 1840 the amendment refers only to militia service.
I'm not opposed to gun ownership, but I don't believe firearm ownership and/or use unconnected to militia service is a federal constitutional protection. Don't forget, the Founders' world is not our world, and courts and federal law has recognized National Guards as modern-day militias.
The founders of this country were more educated and more worldly than anything that passes for a politician today. Their world, the founding of our country, is also our world. People don't change, and neither do tyrants.
Inso far as your refrence to the US v Miller (1939) the SC found that a sawed off shot gun did not meet the standard as a weapon suitable to military service. Miller was already dead by the time the SC heard the case and had no legal representation in the case.
The founders of this country were more educated and more worldly than anything that passes for a politician today. Their world, the founding of our country, is also our world.
It's a known fact that Patrick Henry was a huge "Dancing With the Stars" fan.
http://thomas.loc.gov/cgi-bin/...
Look, I'm pretty pro-Second Amendment. I'll admit, I suppot any ban on automatic weapons. But rifles and handguns serve specific purposes: hunting and protection. I think that the people of DC should be allowed to own guns should they choose so. If you don't want to, don't. You don't have to. But people who want to use guns to do bad things are going to get their hands on them anyways. Come on, people, they live next to Virginia. Might as well give the good people a chance to defend themselves from the bad people, right?
In the 1st, they say "The right of the people to peacefully assemble".
In the 4th, "The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects against unreasonable searches and seizures"
The right against government intrusion (what liberals believe is the backbone of the inferred "right to privacy" that wasn't discovered until the last 50 years) is most definitely an individual right, and it uses the same language as the 2nd Amendment.